CUET PG LLM 2025 Solved Paper | CUET PG LLM Entrance Solved Papers PDF

1. In India, which of the following evidence is admissible under the evidence law:

(A) Primary Documentary Evidence
(B) Secondary Documentary Evidence
(C) Hearsay Evidence
(D) Direct Oral Evidence

Options:

1. (A), (B) and (D) only

2. (A), (B) and (C) only

3. (A), (B), (C) and (D)

4. (B), (C) and (D) only

2. Air Pollutant under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 would include:

(A) Solid Substance
(B) Liquid Substance
(C) Noise
(D) Chimney

Options:

1. (A), (B) and (D) only

2. (A), (B) and (C) only

3. (A), (B), (C) and (D)

4. (B), (C) and (D) only

3. The principle ‘Ubi Jus Ibi Remedium’ means:

Options:

1. Where there is right, there is remedy

2. Injury without damage

3. Damage without injury

4. The right of a third party

4. Which of the following case is not related to matters of professional ethics and professional accountability system?

1. In the matter of, D, an Advocate (1956)

2. Padam Singh v State of Uttar Pradesh

3. Bar Council Maharashtra v M.V. Dabholkar, etc., (1976)

4. In Re Advocate (1989)

5. Who among the following is the founder of the Positivist School of Criminology?

1. Becker

2. Austin

3. Merton

4. Lombroso

6. Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Rule / Theory)

(A) Rule of Recognition

(B) Theory of Sovereignty

(C) Grund Norm (Basic Norm) theory

(D) Volksgeist

List-II (Propounder)

(I) Kelsen

(II) H.L.A. Hart

(III) Austin

(IV) Savigny

Options:

1. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)

2. (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)

3. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)

4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

7. Which among the following are covered under the defences of nuisance?
(A) Adverse Possession
(B) Easementary Rights
(C) Good Faith
(D) Voluntary Harm

Options:

1. (A), (B) and (D) only

2. (A), (B) and (C) only

3. (A), (B), (C) and (D)

4. (B), (C) and (D) only

8. Which of the following doctrine was propounded for the first time in the famous case of Marbury v. Madison?

1. Public Interest Litigation
2. Rule of Law

3. Judicial Activism

4. Judicial Review

9. Arrange in descending order the following Acts from the year of their coming into being:

(A) Hindu Marriage Act
(B) Hindu Succession Act
(C) Family Courts Act
(D) Prohibition of Child Marriage Act

Options:

1. (A), (B), (C), (D)

2. (A), (B), (D), (C)

3. (B), (A), (D), (C)

4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

10. Provisions regarding lien are found in:

1. Sale of Goods Act
2. Transfer of Property Act
3. Indian Contract Act
4. Company Act

11. ‘Tort means a civil wrong which is not exclusively a breach of contract or breach of trust’. This definition is given in which of the following statutes?

1. The Contract Act, 1872

2. The Sale of Goods Act, 1930

3. The Limitation Act, 1963

4. The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

12. Z is carried off by a tiger. A fires at the tiger knowing it to be likely that the shot may kill Z, but not intending to kill Z, and in good faith intending Z’s benefit. A’s bullet gives Z a mortal wound. A has committed:

1. Grievous hurt
2. Simple hurt
3. No offence
4. Attempt to murder

13. Who among the following is authorised to arrest under criminal procedure law?

(A) Magistrate
(B) Private Person
(C) Police Officer
(D) Accused Person

Options:

1. (A), (B) and (D) only

2. (A), (B) and (C) only

3. (A), (B), (C) and (D)

4. (B), (C) and (D) only

14. A, intending or knowing that the blow may permanently disfigure Z’s face, gives Z a blow which does not permanently disfigure Z’s face, but which causes Z to suffer severe bodily pain for twenty days. A has:

1. Voluntarily caused hurt
2. Voluntarily caused grievous hurt
3. Grievous hurt
4. Hurt

15. Eugen Ehrlich in his theory includes the following:

(A) Law is to be found in Social Facts
(B) Living Law is the fact that governs social life
(C) If statute is not observed in practice, it is not part of living law
(D) The task of law is ‘social engineering’

Options:

1. (A), (B) and (D) only

2. (A), (B) and (C) only

3. (A), (B), (C) and (D)

4. (B), (C) and (D) only

16. Memorandum of Association is a:

1. Private Document
2. Public Document
3. Certified Document
4. False Document

17. Dissolution of marriage initiated at the instance of a Muslim woman under the classical Muslim law is called:

1. Khula
2. Mahr
3. Iddat
4. Mubarat

18. Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Provision)

(A) Restitution of Conjugal Rights

(B) Void Marriages

(C) Voidable Marriages

(D) Judicial Separation

List-II (Section)

(I) Section 12

(II) Section 11

(III) Section 10

(IV) Section 9

Options:

1. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)

2. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)

3. (A) – (IV), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)

4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

19. Which of the following is not included in the definition of ‘business’ under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932?

1. Trade
2. Profession
3. Occupation
4. Hiring

20. Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Sections)

(A) Section 5 of the Transfer of Property Act

(B) Section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act

(C) Section 7 of the Transfer of Property Act

(D) Section 8 of the Transfer of Property Act

List-II (Explanations)

(I) Transfer of property defined

(II) Who is competent to transfer

(III) What may be transferred

(IV) Operation of transfer

Options:

1. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)

2. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)

3. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)

4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

21. “Specific Relief” under the Specific Relief Act, 1963 can be granted only for the:

1. Enforcing individual Fundamental Rights

2. Enforcing individual civil rights as well as criminal rights

3. Enforcing individual criminal rights only

4. Enforcing individual civil rights and not for the mere purpose of enforcing a penal law

22. The statute ousting the jurisdiction of the civil court be interpreted:

1. Liberally

2. Strictly

3. Both Liberally and Strictly

4. Discretion of the Court

23. Fixed Deposits are also called as:

1. Accrued Deposits

2. Time Deposits

3. Recurring Deposits

4. Demand Deposits

24. Arrange the following legislations in order of their coming into force:

(A) Sherman Act
(B) MRTP Act
(C) Clayton Act
(D) Competition Act

Options:

1. (A), (C), (B), (D)

2. (A), (B), (C), (D)

3. (B), (A), (D), (C)

4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

25. Which of the following is not included under the definition of ‘wages’ given under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936?

1. Basic Wage

2. Dearness Allowance

3. Incentive

4. Gratuity

26. Arrange the following provisions as they appear in proceedings according to the evidence law:

(A) Re-Examination
(B) Examination-in-Chief
(C) Judgment
(D) Cross-Examination

Options:

1. (A), (B), (C), (D)

2. (A), (B), (D), (C)

3. (B), (D), (A), (C)

4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

27. Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Cases)

(A) Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab

(B) Delhi Laws Act, 1912, re

(C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

(D) Om Kumar v. Union of India

List-II (Doctrine)

(I) Separation of Powers

(II) Delegated Legislation

(III) Doctrine of Proportionality

(IV) Post-decisional Hearing

Options:

1. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)

2. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)

3. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)

4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

28. Arrange the following as they appear in any trial proceeding under criminal procedure law:

(A) Arguments
(B) Summon to Defence
(C) Plea of Guilt
(D) Discharge

Options:

1. (D), (C), (B), (A)

2. (A), (B), (C), (D)

3. (B), (A), (D), (C)

4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

29. Arrange the following in sequence as they are provided under the evidence law:

(A) Test Identification Parade
(B) Motive, Preparation and Conduct
(C) Accidental or Intentional
(D) Highly Improbable

Options:

1. (A), (B), (C), (D)

2. (A), (B), (D), (C)

3. (B), (A), (D), (C)

4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

30. “Legal theory is science, not volition. It is knowledge of what the law is, not of what the law ought to be.” It was said by:

1. Jerome Frank

2. Salmond

3. Kelsen

4. Duguit

31. When an emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution is proclaimed, the President of India has no power to suspend the:

1. Article 14 and Article 19

2. Article 20 and Article 21

3. Article 14 and Article 21

4. Article 21 and Article 19

32. Iddat under Muslim law refers to:

1. A false accusation of adultery

2. A special kind of maintenance to the wife

3. Waiting period before a woman can remarry after divorce

4. Prohibited degree of relationship

33. Arrange the following as per the Articles of the Constitution of India:

(A) Power of the Parliament to modify the Fundamental Rights
(B) Remedies for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights
(C) Freedom to manage religious affairs
(D) Abolition of Titles

Options:

1. (D), (C), (B), (A)

2. (A), (B), (C), (D)

3. (B), (A), (D), (C)

4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

34. Which of the sections deals with the appointment of an Arbitrator?

1. Section 8

2. Section 9

3. Section 10

4. Section 11

35. Which of the following Conventions was mainly referred to decide Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan?

1. European Convention on Human Rights

2. United Nations Charter

3. Convention on Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women

4. International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights

36. Which among the following is not covered under the domain of copyright protection?

1. Concept

2. Artistic works

3. Sound

4. Producers of Cinematography

37. Arrange the following as per the provisions of the Constitution of India:

(A) Free and compulsory Education
(B) Special provisions for women and children
(C) Prohibition of employment of children in factories
(D) Instruction in mother-tongue at primary school

Options:

1. (A), (B), (C), (D)

2. (A), (B), (D), (C)

3. (B), (A), (C), (D)

4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

38. Which among the following are essential conditions under Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

(A) Lawful Consideration
(B) Lawful Object
(C) Free Consent
(D) Intention Theory

Options:

1. (A), (B) and (C) only

2. (A), (B) and (D) only

3. (A), (B), (C) and (D)

4. (B), (C) and (D) only

39. Which section talks about “promissory note” under the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881?

1. Section 1 of Negotiable Instrument Act

2. Section 2 of Negotiable Instrument Act

3. Section 3 of Negotiable Instrument Act

4. Section 4 of Negotiable Instrument Act

40. A lays sticks and turf over a pit, with the intention of causing death, or with the knowledge that death is likely to be caused. Z believing the ground to be firm, treads on it, falls in and is killed. A has committed:

1. Offence of Culpable Homicide

2. Offence of Murder

3. Offence of abetment to murder

4. No Offence

41. Mortgage by deposit of title deeds is also known as:

1. Simple Mortgage

2. English Mortgage

3. Equitable Mortgage

4. Anomalous Mortgage

42. Identify in descending order the following Conventions from their year of coming into being:

(A) Universal Declaration of Human Rights

(B) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights

(C) European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms

(D) World Conference on Human Rights, Vienna

Options:

1. (A), (C), (B), (D)

2. (A), (B), (C), (D)

3. (B), (A), (D), (C)

4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

43. A company for charitable purpose may be incorporated as:

1. A Limited company

2. An Unlimited company

3. Limited by Guarantee

4. Partnership

44. Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Articles related to Centre)

(A) Article 72 of the Constitution of India

(B) Article 77 of the Constitution of India

(C) Article 102 of the Constitution of India

(D) Article 105 of the Constitution of India

List-II (Articles Related to States)

(I) Article 191 of the Constitution of India

(II) Article 194 of the Constitution of India

(III) Article 161 of the Constitution of India

(IV) Article 166 of the Constitution of India

Options:

1. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)

2. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)

3. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)

4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

45. On receipt of a Constitutional Amendment Bill, after passing by both Houses of Parliament, the President:

1. Shall give his assent

2. May give his assent

3. May withhold his assent

4. May return the Bill for consideration

46. Which of the following is not the feature of Federalism:

(A) Fundamental Right to Primary Education
(B) Written Constitution
(C) No authority of the Courts
(D) Separation of Powers

Options:

1. (B) and (D) only

2. (B) and (C) only

3. (A), (B), (C) and (D)

4. (A) and (C) only

47. In which of the following case it was laid down that “Universities to prescribe compulsory course on environment at every level in college education”:

1. Vellore Citizens’ Welfare Forum v. UOI (1996)

2. Hinch Lal Tiwari v. Kamala Devi (2001)

3. Indian Council for Enviro Legal Action v. UOI & Ors. (2000)

4. M.C. Mehta v. UOI (1992)

48. Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Provision)

(A) Complete Justice

(B) Special Leave Petition

(C) Review of the Judgments

(D) Original Jurisdiction

List-II (Article of the Constitution)

(I) Article 137

(II) Article 131

(III) Article 142

(IV) Article 136

Options:

1. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)

2. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)

3. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)

4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

49. When the legislature delegates to the executive, its essential functions, it is called:

1. Absolute delegation

2. Excessive delegation

3. Enormous delegation

4. Essential delegation

50. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights are available to citizens only?

(A) Article 15
(B) Article 16
(C) Article 19
(D) Article 29

Options:

1. (A) and (B) only

2. (A), (B) and (C) only

3. (A), (B), (C) and (D)

4. (C) and (D) only

51. Which one of the following is not an example of ‘Bar to further suits’ under section 12 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

1. Order II Rule 2

2. Order IX Rule 9

3. Order VII Rule 11

4. Order XXII Rule 9

52. Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Case)

(A) Hadley v. Baxendale

(B) Henkel v. Pape

(C) Manu Singh v. Umadat Pandey

(D) Chikkam Amiraju v. Seshamma

List-II (Law)

(I) Undue Influence

(II) Coercion

(III) Quantum of Damages

(IV) Mistake

Options:

1. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)

2. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)

3. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)

4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

53. Identify the descending order in which the following sources of International law are mentioned in Article 38(1) of the Statute of the International Court of Justice:

(A) Judicial Decisions
(B) General Principles of International Law
(C) Treaties
(D) International Customs

Options:

1. (C), (D), (B), (A)

2. (A), (B), (C), (D)

3. (B), (A), (D), (C)

4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

54. Who may commute the punishment as per the provision of criminal procedural law?

1. Appropriate Government

2. Central Government

3. State Government

4. Supreme Court of India

55. An interested person may make an application for compulsory licence under IPR after the expiry of:

1. 5 Years

2. 3 Years

3. 2 Years

4. 1 Year

56. Which of the following are not correct as per the Constitution of India?

(A) President of India is not a de jure executive
(B) Prime Minister and Council of Ministers are de facto executive
(C) Council of Ministers are responsible to the Lok Sabha
(D) Council of Ministers is not subject to judicial review

Options:

1. (A) and (B) only

2. (A) and (D) only

3. (B) and (C) only

4. (B) and (D) only

57. Under evidence law ‘fact’ does not include:

1. Any thing perceived by senses

2. Any thing not perceived by senses

3. Any mental condition

4. Relation of things perceived by senses

58. Compulsory licences for patent are granted as:

1. Voluntary

2. Implied

3. Virtual

4. Statutory

59. Read the following in connection with the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996:

(A) Arbitration agreement is defined in section 4 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
(B) Number of arbitrators shall not be even
(C) Arbitration clause may be separate from the main contract
(D) Section 22 deals with the application of setting aside the arbitral award

Options:

1. (A), (B) and (C) only

2. (B), (C) and (D) only

3. (B) and (C) only

4. (C) and (D) only

60. Article 31C was inserted in the Constitution of India by:

1. 44th Constitutional Amendment

2. 42nd Constitutional Amendment

3. 24th Constitutional Amendment

4. 25th Constitutional Amendment

61. Which among the following cases are connected to Volenti Non Fit Injuria?

(A) Vidyawanti v. State of Rajasthan

(B) Padmavati v. Dugganika

(C) Ushaben v. Bhagya Laxmi Chitra Mandir

(D) Bolton v. Stone

Options:

1. (A), (B) and (D) only

2. (A), (B) and (C) only

3. (A), (B), (C) and (D)

4. (B), (C) and (D) only

62. Which of the following is not a General Principle of International Law:

1. Res Judicata

2. Equity

3. Estoppel

4. Special Circumstances

63. The object of the Right to Information Act, 2005 is:

(A) To promote Right to Information propounded by the Supreme Court
(B) To promote transparency and accountability
(C) To curtail corruption
(D) To provide all kinds of information, private or public in nature

Options:

1. (A), (B) and (D) only

2. (B), (C) and (D) only

3. (A), (C) and (D) only

4. (A), (B) and (C) only

64. Which of the following are objectives of the Environment Protection Act, 1986?

(A) Protection of Environment
(B) Improvement of Environment
(C) Prevention of Hazards
(D) Establishment of Central and State Water Prevention and Control Boards

Options:

1. (A), (B) and (D) only

2. (A), (B) and (C) only

3. (A), (B), (C) and (D)

4. (B), (C) and (D) only

65. Indian federation closely resembles to that of:

1. United States of America

2. Australia

3. Canada

4. United Kingdom

66. Which of the following is not a specialised agency of the United Nations Organisation?

1. Food and Agriculture Organisation

2. International Monetary Fund

3. World Health Organisation

4. World Trade Organisation

67. Which of the following case laws are associated with “Consideration” as per the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

(A) Currie v. Misa
(B) Kedar Nath v. Gorie Mohammed
(C) Abdul Aziz v. Masum Ali
(D) Bhagwan Das Kedia v. Girdhari Lal

Options:

1. (A), (B) and (D) only

2. (A), (B) and (C) only

3. (A), (B), (C) and (D)

4. (B), (C) and (D) only

68. In which of the following business association the liability of its members is joint and several?

1. Partnership Firm

2. Limited Liability Partnership

3. Company

4. Open Market

69. Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) is a unit of which governing body?

1. CSIR

2. NCERT

3. UGC

4. Supreme Court of India

70. Can the client’s papers/documents under the possession of a lawyer be considered ‘goods’ to recover his fees, under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?

1. Yes, in all circumstances

2. They are not goods

3. Yes, if charge is created

4. Yes, after the death of client

71. A company is vested with a distinct legal personality separate from its members. This was held in which of the following case?

1. Salomon v. Salomon

2. Daimler v. Continental Tyres

3. Bridges v. Hawkesworth

4. John v. Smith

72. Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Theory)

(A) Volksgeist

(B) Minimum Morality

(C) Command of Sovereign

(D) Social Engineering

List-II (Propounder)

(I) John Austin

(II) Roscoe Pound

(III) Savigny

(IV) H. L. A. Hart

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)

2. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)

3. (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)

4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

73. Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Amendment)

(A) Hundred and One Constitutional Amendment Act

(B) Hundred and Two Constitutional Amendment Act

(C) Hundred and Three Constitutional Amendment Act

(D) Hundred and Four Constitutional Amendment Act

List-II (Provision)

(I) Extension of reservation for SCs and STs in Union and State Legislature

(II) Reservation for Economically Weaker Section

(III) National Commission for Backward Classes

(IV) Goods and Service Tax

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)

2. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)

3. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)

4. (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)

74. Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Cause)

(A) Guilty of Rape since solemnisation of Marriage

(B) Impotency

(C) Spouse Withdraws from Society

(D) Adultery

List-II (Effect on Marriage)

(I) Ground of Divorce

(II) Voidable Marriage

(III) Restitution of Conjugal Rights

(IV) Ground for Judicial Separation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)

2. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)

3. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)

4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

75. Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Provision)

(A) Strict Liability

(B) Absolute Liability

(C) Negligence

(D) Act of God

List-II (Case Law)

(I) Rylands v. Fletcher

(II) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India

(III) Nicholas v. Marsland

(IV) MCD v. Subhagwanti

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)

2. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)

3. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)

4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

Answers

1) 1

2) 2

3) 1

4) 2

5) 4

6) 2

7) 2

8) 4

9) 1

10) 1

11) 3

12) 3

13) 2

14) 2

15) 2

16) 2

17) 1

18) 3

19) 4

20) 2

21) 4

22) 2

23) 2

24) 1

25) 4

26) 3

27) 3

28) 1

29) 3

30) 3

31) 2

32) 3

33) 1

34) 4

35) 3

36) 1

37) 3

38) 1

39) 4

40) 1

41) 3

42) 1

43) 1

44) 4

45) 1

46) 4

47) 4

48) 4

49) 2

50) 3

51) 3

52) 4

53) 1

54) 1

55) 2

56) 2

57) 2

58) 4

59) 3

60) 4

61) 4

62) 4

63) 4

64) 2

65) 3

66) 4

67) 2

68) 1

69) 1

70) 2

71) 1

72) 4

73) 4

74) 1

75) 3

Important Link

Law Library: Notes and Study Material for LLB, LLM, Judiciary, and Entrance Exams